I know, and this is a gambling forum. We trust ourselves to make determinations between microscopic magnitudes of value, and yet 14 pages of explanations don't convince people. Makes me slightly uneasy...
It has been explained about 20 times over the last 16 pages.
Read through the thread.
How about this argument for 50/50. Lets replace the random "boy" with a name like Tom. Wouldn't it then be
Tom/boy
Tom/girl
boy/Tom
girl/Tom
Zitty i think 2/3 is the correct answer, but how would you answer this question posed by someone from another board
Once you identify one of the boys, by name or (for example) say "older son"
or "younger son" the answer is 50/50.
This also as been gone-over also in this thread about 20 times.
E.g.
A family has two children, the oldest child is a boy. What is a probability
the family has a daughter? 50/50
The thing that I dont understand is how can you have:
BG Where boy is older
AND
GB where girl is older
but you cant have
B1B2 where boy one is older
AND
B2B1 where boy 2 is older
Why does the older and younger boy not get factored (B1B2) when there are 2 boys but it does get factored in when you have a boy and a girl (GB and BG)?
I think the argument for the 50%ers is that if you are going to factor in BG and GB then you should factor in BB(1) and BB(2)?
Wow first off i thought it was 50 % for sure, but after seeing the reasons for the contrary i am now going with 66.66%
three options:
BB
BG
GB
= 2 out of 3 scenarios
The thing that I dont understand is how can you have:
BG Where boy is older
AND
GB where girl is older
but you cant have
B1B2 where boy one is older
AND
B2B1 where boy 2 is older
Why does the older and younger boy not get factored (B1B2) when there are 2 boys but it does get factored in when you have a boy and a girl (GB and BG)?
I think the argument for the 50%ers is that if you are going to factor in BG and GB then you should factor in BB(1) and BB(2)?