Allright, it's good to see that there is active debate taking place. The correct answer is 2/3. Geoff, if we knew the FIRST child was male, then there is a 50% chance that the second child is male. But if we just know that there is at least one male in the set of two children, then there is a 2/3 probability that the other is female. We are NOT being told the gender of a specific child, and that is what is important. As FesZit already explained, Bayes' Theorem could be used to prove this, but you can also get to the answer using only logical thinking.
The examples people have used about having 20 kids and knowing one is a boy does not fit well, because then we are only ruling out one subset from 2^20 combinations (20 girls), which has very little statistical significance in determining the M:F ratio in the family.
Note that there is a very big difference between GB and BG.