I'm going to try to do something I don't do often and do not want to start a flamewar or criticisms or anything of the nature. The only thing that DP could have rationally meant with that point was this fact......At first, Hitler DID NOT want to kill any of the Jews, he just wanted to move them out of Germany. At the onset of World War II, Hitler's position began to change and by the time the Final Solution was implemented in 1941-42, Hitler's new plan was clear. Now, the first concentration camp opened in 1933 at Dachau and was used for Communists and political prisoners. In fact, until 1939, very few Jews were put into concentration camps.....the camps were mostly filled with other ethnic groups and political prisoners (mainly Commies). It can be shown that prior to 1939, all Hitler wanted to do was expel all these non-ethnic groups from Germany. For example, two other ethnic groups that Hitler disliked were African Americans and Gypsies, and during the 30's he called for both groups to be sterilized. Same went for known homosexuals. Barbaric and cruel? Of course But he never killed any of these minorities. It was with the Jews that he ran into a problem simply because the Jews were a much larger group than any of the other persecuted groups in Germany at the time. Now here comes the kicker. Hitler wanted to expel these people from his country, but where could they go? The USSR did not want to be flooded with immigrants as did most other countries around them. Britain and the United States tried to help out in the beginning of Hitler's term as evidenced by the steep rise in immigrant levels from Germany to those two countries. However, the world was also going through a depression then and soon Britain and the US could not support these immigrant levels. This was truly a travesty because much like the Lienz Cossacks after the War, these people (from ALL groups not just the Jews) were in the hands of an absolute madman. Also, most people seem to think that we had no knowledge of these mass atrocities, however the truth is we had knowledge of the horrors of Auschwitz-Birkenau, Buchenwald, Sobribor, Treblinka, Bergen-Belsen, and the other camps as early as 1939 and the knowledge of what was going on in these camps. There are notes from a meeting between Roosevelt and Churchill in 1941 in which both individuals lament that something horrible is happening but they cannot open their borders to these individuals because Hitler (at this point) was still wanting to expel them. The fact is that neither Britain nor the US could handle the rush of ~25 million people suddenly moving into the country. Both leaders knew that such immense influxes of immigrants into their country always cause massive civil unrest. (If you want to check, look at post-colonial Africa and 1948 Israel). This is unbelievably sad no question about it. But I just wanted to point out that Hitler DID NOT want to exterminate every non-Aryan from the start. It took time and other country's closing their borders to immigration for that to happen. Again, I'm just theoreticizing on what DP could've meant by saying Hitler was misunderstood. At the very least I hope I have enlightened anyone unaware of this. Thank you.