Because Matchbook has .01 lines, they almost always have the best line out there for both sides. When they don't, it's an arbitrage opportunity (meaning you can bet both sides and guarantee profit). However, rather than bet both sides, I've found it more profitable to listen to what Matchbook is telling you since their line is the sharpest.
In an example, Matchbook had KC +146, and BetPhoenix had TAM -143. You go against Matchbook, taking Tampa -143.
Matchbook features .01 lines, although some games with high juice have ~.05 lines. There are times near the closing number when one of the numbers is out of wack, and there's a .30+ line. That's because there simply is too much demand on one side - this is an exchange and you need to agree on a number. When you see the .30 line, you bet on the team with the line that is way off.
Take the BOS-DET game for example. Boston was around -145 at all the books. At Matchbook, they're -187. No one is going to bet -187, the book is showing a terrible number because it's a winner.
could somebody help me with this example from way back in the first post?
In the kc-tampa example he says to play tampa-143 at another book because the line at matchbook is kc +146. heres where am getting confused.
lets say book A has tampa -143/ kc +133{assuming this is a 10 cent book}
matchbook for this game has tampa-147 or -148{guessing by the number he used for kc} / kc +146
doesnt that make kc +146 the best line out there, thus making them a play at matchbook?
any help in explaining this would be greatly appreciated
thanks
cd
could somebody help me with this example from way back in the first post?
In the kc-tampa example he says to play tampa-143 at another book because the line at matchbook is kc +146. heres where am getting confused.
lets say book A has tampa -143/ kc +133{assuming this is a 10 cent book}
matchbook for this game has tampa-147 or -148{guessing by the number he used for kc} / kc +146
doesnt that make kc +146 the best line out there, thus making them a play at matchbook?
any help in explaining this would be greatly appreciated
thanks
cd
Guys thanks for the help understanding this. Its tough to digest 108 pages of posts, lolllllll:toast:
so if matchbook has the est line for both the fav/dog the game wouldnt be a play then? would that be correct?
an example would be tonights pitt/minny game
Book A has minny -190/ pitt +180
matchbook has minny -186/ pitt +184
since they have the best line for fav and dog, this would be a no play right?
thanks again
MB 10CENT MOVES/PLAYS TODAY were cleve & LAA as laa was a 9cent move but since it was so close to a play i referred to the other 3 that i refer to & all 3 had at least a 15cent move favoring LAA as a play,GL
It's not crashing down. I was simply noting that the volume of plays was decreasing. Typically every game was having a play, two nights ago we had less than half the games playing. The books were triggering fewer plays, doubt this thread was the reason.sick night so far
lol so much for system crashing down