I went all the way back to 1989. These are the results I have...
Overall Games CLOSING -3 : 566
Results for those games ATS : 259-245-62
Games with a posted CLOSING total of <37/line of -3 : 169
Results of those games ATS: 72-80-17
Games with a posted CLOSING total of >37/line of -3 : 397
Results of those games ATS: 187-165- 45
It doesn't take a genius to see that OVERALL (according to these numbers) there has been about a 10.95% probability (62/566) of getting a push.
With totals less than 37 there has been about a 10.05% probability (17/169) of getting a push.
With totals over 37 there has been about a 11.33% probability (45/397) of getting a push.
So my numbers still hold true when I go back a few more years. Actually they go up slightly with the OVER side. But that might be a streak of 3 or 4 games that does that. That just shows the volatility of trying to figure this stuff out. I have numbers all thje way back to 84-85 but cannot find that disc right now, but I am certain the same will hold true.
There was one year with an inordinate amout of pushes, the same year Aces went bankrupt by letting people bet anything. I have said it before, and I say it again, they just got "unlucky". Because had the historical results held true, they would have cleaned up. Probably would have eventually gotten busted, but they would not have gone broke then. I believe there were 12 or 13 pushes that year, rather than the "normal" 3 or 4. So about 4 times as many. Also if you do throw that year out (which you cannot) the probabilility of a push on -3 DOES in fact drop BELOW 10% since 1989.
But that is just it, we cannot add or subtract the "good" or the "bad" years to suit our need, or arguments. IMO that year was a major anomoly, and was far outside the norm. I believe there were 12 of 56 games that pushed on -3. It is in here somewhere for sure. So we just have to take all the games we can find and get a median that way.
But it would not be wrong to say that the probability, based on past results of getting a push on a game lined -3 is less than 10%. As long as you know in your head that that one year had a high enough percentage to push the number slightly higher.
Sort of like a bell curve back in school. The whole class might get grades of 80-85, but there is always that one kid that gets 100. So that is the one year (out of the 17 I looked at) that threw it out of whack. For the most part the other years range from 7% to 11% or so. But OVERALL, and including that 'anomoly' year, they are right arounf 11%. SO it is NOT wrong to use that figure either.
Again, these are MY numbers. The results can vary for sure. But overall I cannot see how it could ever get as high as 14% unless it was for a pretty short span and the numbers used were a "worst" or "best" case study, depending on how it was defined.
It could still be broken down further into games where the numbers only moved slighty, as well as looking at games where the number moved "a lot". But since we can't even agree on the basics, THAT would get REALLY confusing.
Basically if you want to bet both sides of this game, and can risk 11 bux in juice to collect 100 dollars then you basically have a 50/50 shot of cashing. Which is still better than betting one side at -110 and needing 52.7% winners.
And maybe that is what the SHRINK was saying all along. I think he just got the percentages a little too high. If all things were equal and you could lay 22 cents TOTAL BOTH ways, it is still a 2.7% advantage over betting one side. That is over a long series of bets.
Which gets to my argument. A decent capper that can pick winners at better than 52.7% doesn't have any advantage here. The only way it "REALLY" works is if the guy has bet both sides in all 566 games where the line was -3. Since that is the standard we/I have used for my results. And that same guy would now be just about even depending on the odss he could have gotten. So in 17 years he surely wouldn't have gone broke, but wouldn't have made much, if anything either.
THAT is my argument in a nutshell, basically.