That is so ridiculous. If I play one to two games a night for $1,500 a game (Where I feel have a definite edge), I'm a newbie or rebuilding a bankroll or I'm less disciplined? How do you make those three association with flat betting?
You're killing me. :lolBIG:
With others have chimed in with their opinions while I was offline, I could have just let this thread speak for itself. Though, I did want to respond to your question.
You actually was making an assumption where none exists. Just because I mentioned 3 things doesn't mean that you must have been 1 of those 3. Evidently, you aren't one of the 3 descriptions I mentioned that would benefit "the most" from flat-betting. Reasons I mentioned those 3 associations from the tip of my fingers when I typed earlier this afternoon:
1.) newbies: they do not necessarily have the skill or experience yet to identify how to determine edges & apply properly to their betting patterns
2.) rebuilding bankrolls: for instance, many of us do take out portions of our sports betting BR for one reason or other... in your mention of $1.5k bets, say, you end up only have $10K left at all books combined as you already recently "withdrew $20K or whatever". You wouldn't have the room to make $500 (action plays), $1K (normal plays), or $1.5K bets (best plays) realistically
to really vary your bets properly. This is where 2% of current bankroll would be best applied as practiced by many here since you can go through losing/winning streaks before you can jump up to bigger bets.
3.) less-disciplined bettors: it says for itself if some people find themselves easily going on tilt after losing 8 straight nickel bets... then making several multiple dime bets in a row after that, regardless of results, then they would appear to benefit best from grinding out flat-betting.
In your case, Tony, you mentioned an example of 1 or 2 games where you found definitive edges to wager a potential $1,500 each game. Rather than miring into "difference-between-70%-to-80%", which is besides the point, I ask one question once again:
When you find definite edges on 2 games that you WANT to bet on a small card for the day,
can you say with strong belief that each game's perceived edge by YOU are exactly the same for every game that you bet $1.5k on?
You would have to admit that after
only 10 or 20 bets of all at the same amount (whether it is $1.5k or whatever else), even before the game has started, you would have had
various degrees of confidence on those games, right?
Now, why lump them all together in one same wager amount? That is what the AMOUNT of edge comes in as mentioned by several here. That's why I believe in the varying bets scheme (as well as following a strict money management system).
P.S. I definitely have said my piece.
* CalvinTy