Forgive me if this is an extemely n00b question but I can't get my head around it so correct me if any of my statements or assumptions are wrong: A scalp occurs only on moneyline bets and can be structured to show a small profit regardless of the outcome or to win with one side and a zero sum gain with the other. A middle occurs on the RL/PS and U/O and obviuosly pays off if it hits but otherwise will show a small loss due to the vig?
Am I close in these statements?
Am I close in these statements?
