Hi, I just have a dumb question that I have. What is the real difference between choosing a team's spread of 'pick' and taking the team's moneyline? Isn't as long as the team wins, both the pk and ml will win, correct? Reason I ask this is there's a difference in the vig between the two. Isn't obviously for bettors to pick the one with the lower vig if they feel confident that a particular would win? Any help would be appreciated, thanks.
When a game is a PK usually means both teams are -110 unless you have reduce juice, in which case is obviously better to take the reduce juice, but if both teams are -110 and you get a lot of action at PK on one side remember that is useless to move the line -½ since the game could not end in a tide, so the mover needs to take the line right to -1. If you don't want to do that at some point you can always use the ML to take some action on the other side by moving it 5 or even 10 cents without risking the push, that is why sometimes ML are different than -110 either way on a PK spread.
Keep in mind that in soccer, pk and ML are 2 different animals. For example, Birmingham in the English Premier League is at pk -123 and the Moneyline is +138. The pk means that if Birmingham wins, you win your bet but if they tie (or draw as it's is also called) there is no bet. At the Moneyline price for soccer Birmingham would have to win in order for you to pocket any money on the +138. If Birmingham draws and you took the Moneyline you would lose your bet.
In soccer, -0.5 and Moneyline are almost identical yet you see 2 different prices for each. I'm not sure how this works exactly but I think it has something to do with parlays. For the purposes of a straight bet, take the bet (-0.5 or Moneyline) that has the best price.
In soccer, -0.5 and Moneyline are almost identical yet you see 2 different prices for each. I'm not sure how this works exactly but I think it has something to do with parlays. For the purposes of a straight bet, take the bet (-0.5 or Moneyline) that has the best price.
